Free practice questions
Free DOH practice questions
These ten questions are pulled straight from the PassCurve DOH bank and shown exactly as a candidate meets them in a real revision session, nothing held back and nothing simplified for the page. Answer one, then open the reveal underneath to see the correct option, why every option is right or wrong, and the specific guideline the answer rests on.
The Department of Health Abu Dhabi licensing exam is sat in English, so every question here is written in English too, the language you will actually read on exam day. Ten questions from one sitting will not replace a full revision plan, but they are a fast, honest way to see where your knowledge already holds and where it still has gaps. Read the DOH exam guide for the exam's format, eligibility and scoring, or start a free session in the app now to keep going past these ten.
Every explanation below is evidence based: each one names the specific guideline it rests on and the date that source was last read, so you can check it yourself rather than take our word for it. These questions are written and fact-checked with AI assistance; not individually signed off by a physician.
Internal Medicine
A 28-year-old Filipino nurse presents to an emergency department in Abu Dhabi with 8 hours of worsening wheeze and chest tightness after cleaning a dusty room. She has a history of intermittent asthma but has never required intubation. She is alert and speaking in short phrases. Temperature is 37.0°C, respiratory rate 28/min, pulse 112/min, and oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Examination reveals widespread expiratory wheezing without focal crackles. Peak expiratory flow is 45% of her predicted value. What is the most appropriate initial management?
- Proceed immediately to endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation
- Give inhaled salbutamol alone and defer corticosteroids until the peak flow normalizes
- Give oxygen, repeated inhaled salbutamol plus ipratropium, and systemic corticosteroids
- Give intravenous antibiotics, nebulized saline, and observe for clinical improvement
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
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A. Proceed immediately to endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation
Immediate intubation is reserved for impending or actual respiratory failure, such as exhaustion, altered consciousness, silent chest, or refractory hypoxemia; these findings are not present here.
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B. Give inhaled salbutamol alone and defer corticosteroids until the peak flow normalizes
Inhaled salbutamol is necessary, but delaying systemic corticosteroids in a substantial exacerbation increases the risk of persistent or recurrent deterioration.
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C. Give oxygen, repeated inhaled salbutamol plus ipratropium, and systemic corticosteroids
This is the recommended initial treatment for a significant acute asthma exacerbation, with oxygen titrated to 93–95% in adults, repeated rapid-acting bronchodilators, and early systemic corticosteroids.
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D. Give intravenous antibiotics, nebulized saline, and observe for clinical improvement
There is no evidence of bacterial pneumonia or another infection, and antibiotics do not treat the airway obstruction of an acute asthma exacerbation.
TAKEAWAY
A significant acute asthma exacerbation requires prompt oxygen titration, repeated inhaled short-acting bronchodilators, and early systemic corticosteroids; add ipratropium in more severe attacks.
Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA), Global Strategy for Asthma Management and Prevention, 2025 · Management of asthma exacerbations in acute care (checked 9 August 2026)
A 58-year-old man presents to an Abu Dhabi emergency department with 90 minutes of severe central chest pressure radiating to his left arm, associated with diaphoresis and nausea. Blood pressure is 142/86 mmHg, heart rate 96/min, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air. The ECG shows 3-mm ST-segment elevation in leads V2–V5 with reciprocal ST-segment depression in the inferior leads. The hospital can perform coronary angiography and intervention within 60 minutes. What is the most appropriate next step?
- Arrange an urgent exercise stress test before deciding on treatment
- Administer fibrinolytic therapy as the initial reperfusion strategy
- Activate the catheterization laboratory for immediate primary percutaneous coronary intervention
- Repeat the ECG and cardiac troponin measurement after three hours
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
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A. Arrange an urgent exercise stress test before deciding on treatment
Exercise stress testing is contraindicated during an acute STEMI and would dangerously delay definitive reperfusion treatment.
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B. Administer fibrinolytic therapy as the initial reperfusion strategy
Fibrinolysis is considered when timely primary PCI cannot be performed. In this case, the hospital can provide PCI within the recommended time window, so primary PCI is preferred.
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C. Activate the catheterization laboratory for immediate primary percutaneous coronary intervention
This patient has an acute anterior ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction, and primary PCI is the preferred reperfusion strategy when it can be performed promptly by an experienced team.
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D. Repeat the ECG and cardiac troponin measurement after three hours
Serial testing is appropriate when the diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome is uncertain. However, diagnostic ECG findings of STEMI require immediate reperfusion and should not be delayed for biomarker confirmation.
TAKEAWAY
In a patient with STEMI, primary PCI is the preferred reperfusion treatment when it can be delivered promptly; do not delay reperfusion for troponin testing or stress testing.
2023 ESC Guidelines for the Management of Acute Coronary Syndromes · Section 6.2.1, Primary PCI versus fibrinolysis (checked 9 August 2026)
A 46-year-old man attends a Weqaya cardiovascular risk-screening visit in Abu Dhabi. He has central obesity and hypertension but no polyuria, polydipsia, or weight loss. His fasting plasma glucose is 132 mg/dL (7.3 mmol/L). A repeat fasting plasma glucose obtained on a different day is 129 mg/dL (7.2 mmol/L). What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Normal glucose regulation
- Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- Prediabetes
- Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
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A. Normal glucose regulation
This is incorrect because normal fasting plasma glucose is below 100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L). Two separate results above 126 mg/dL meet the biochemical criteria for diabetes.
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B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
This is incorrect because the presentation is more consistent with type 2 diabetes: the patient is an adult with central obesity and hypertension, and there is no acute catabolic illness, ketosis, or suggestive history of autoimmune diabetes.
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C. Prediabetes
This is incorrect because prediabetes is diagnosed when fasting plasma glucose is 100–125 mg/dL (5.6–6.9 mmol/L). Both documented fasting values are within the diabetic range.
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D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
This is correct. In an asymptomatic patient, two fasting plasma glucose values of at least 126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) on separate days establish diabetes. The adult age, central obesity, hypertension, and absence of ketosis or catabolic symptoms make type 2 diabetes mellitus most likely.
TAKEAWAY
In an asymptomatic adult, diabetes is confirmed by two abnormal diagnostic test results, either from the same test on separate occasions or from different tests obtained at the same time. A fasting plasma glucose of at least 126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) is diagnostic.
American Diabetes Association, Standards of Care in Diabetes—2026 · Section 2, Diagnosis and Classification of Diabetes: Criteria for the Diagnosis of Diabetes (checked 9 August 2026)
Obstetrics and Gynaecology
A 58-year-old woman presents to a gynaecology clinic in Abu Dhabi with a single episode of vaginal bleeding occurring 7 years after menopause. She is not taking hormone therapy or anticoagulants. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. Transvaginal ultrasonography shows an endometrial thickness of 8 mm. What is the most appropriate next step?
- Repeat transvaginal ultrasonography in 3 months
- Perform an office endometrial biopsy
- Reassure her and arrange routine follow-up
- Proceed directly to hysteroscopy with dilation and curettage
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
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A. Repeat transvaginal ultrasonography in 3 months
Repeat imaging is not the appropriate initial management when postmenopausal bleeding is associated with an endometrial thickness of 8 mm; histological assessment is required.
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B. Perform an office endometrial biopsy
This is the most appropriate next step. Postmenopausal bleeding with an endometrial thickness greater than 4 mm requires endometrial sampling, and an office biopsy is an appropriate initial method.
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C. Reassure her and arrange routine follow-up
This is inappropriate because postmenopausal bleeding requires evaluation, and an endometrial thickness greater than 4 mm warrants endometrial tissue sampling to exclude endometrial malignancy.
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D. Proceed directly to hysteroscopy with dilation and curettage
Hysteroscopy with dilation and curettage may be indicated when an office biopsy is inadequate, nondiagnostic, or when bleeding persists despite a benign result; it is not required as the first step in this presentation.
TAKEAWAY
Postmenopausal bleeding with an endometrial thickness greater than 4 mm on transvaginal ultrasonography requires endometrial sampling, usually beginning with an office endometrial biopsy.
American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, Committee Opinion No. 734: The Role of Transvaginal Ultrasonography in Evaluating the Endometrium of Women With Postmenopausal Bleeding · Evaluation of postmenopausal bleeding; reaffirmed 2023 (checked 9 August 2026)
A 29-year-old primigravida at 35 weeks and 4 days of gestation attends a hospital in Abu Dhabi with a severe frontal headache and blurred vision. Her blood pressure is 172/114 mmHg and remains 168/110 mmHg after 15 minutes. Urinalysis shows 3+ protein, and laboratory tests show elevated alanine aminotransferase. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer corticosteroids and delay delivery for 48 hours
- Start oral antihypertensive therapy and reassess in the antenatal clinic tomorrow
- Stabilize the mother with magnesium sulfate and urgent antihypertensive treatment, then deliver
- Continue expectant management until 37 weeks with close outpatient monitoring
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
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A. Administer corticosteroids and delay delivery for 48 hours
Antenatal corticosteroids may be considered when preterm delivery is anticipated, but they should not delay delivery when severe maternal disease requires urgent intervention. Maternal stabilization and delivery take priority.
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B. Start oral antihypertensive therapy and reassess in the antenatal clinic tomorrow
Severe persistent hypertension with headache, visual symptoms, proteinuria, and elevated liver enzymes requires hospital-based urgent management, not outpatient follow-up.
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C. Stabilize the mother with magnesium sulfate and urgent antihypertensive treatment, then deliver
This patient has preeclampsia with severe features at 34 weeks or more, with persistent severe hypertension and neurological symptoms. Maternal stabilization, seizure prophylaxis, urgent blood-pressure control, and delivery are indicated.
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D. Continue expectant management until 37 weeks with close outpatient monitoring
Expectant management is not appropriate when severe features are present at or beyond 34 weeks, particularly with persistent severe hypertension and visual or neurological symptoms.
TAKEAWAY
Preeclampsia with severe features at 34 weeks or later requires maternal stabilization, urgent treatment of severe hypertension, magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis, and delivery rather than expectant management.
American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, Practice Bulletin No. 222: Gestational Hypertension and Preeclampsia · Management of preeclampsia with severe features at or beyond 34 0/7 weeks of gestation, 2020 (checked 9 August 2026)
A 32-year-old gravida 2 para 1 at 30 weeks’ gestation presents to a hospital in Abu Dhabi with sudden, painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding. Her blood pressure and pulse are normal, the fetal heart rate is reassuring, and there are no uterine contractions. What is the most appropriate next step?
- Start intravenous oxytocin infusion
- Perform transvaginal ultrasonography
- Perform a digital vaginal examination
- Administer intramuscular methylergometrine
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
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A. Start intravenous oxytocin infusion
Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor when indicated, but it is inappropriate before determining the cause of painless antepartum bleeding and excluding placenta previa.
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B. Perform transvaginal ultrasonography
This is the most appropriate next step in a stable patient with painless third-trimester bleeding because it accurately assesses placental location and is safe when placenta previa is suspected.
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C. Perform a digital vaginal examination
This should be avoided until placenta previa has been excluded because digital examination may provoke severe hemorrhage if the placenta overlies the cervical os.
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D. Administer intramuscular methylergometrine
Methylergometrine is a uterotonic used mainly for postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony; it has no role in the initial evaluation of stable antepartum bleeding.
TAKEAWAY
In a stable patient with painless third-trimester bleeding, assess placental location with ultrasonography and avoid digital vaginal examination until placenta previa is excluded.
Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, Green-top Guideline No. 27a: Placenta Praevia and Placenta Accreta: Diagnosis and Management, 2018 · Diagnosis of placenta praevia and recommended imaging (checked 9 August 2026)
Pediatrics
A term newborn is apneic immediately after birth. After initial steps, positive-pressure ventilation is provided with visible chest movement for 30 seconds. The heart rate is 80 beats/min, and the infant remains apneic. What is the most appropriate next step?
- Begin coordinated chest compressions
- Administer intravenous epinephrine
- Apply continuous positive airway pressure alone
- Continue positive-pressure ventilation and reassess the heart rate
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D
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A. Begin coordinated chest compressions
Chest compressions are indicated when the heart rate remains below 60 beats/min despite at least 30 seconds of effective positive-pressure ventilation, not when the heart rate is 80 beats/min.
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B. Administer intravenous epinephrine
Epinephrine is considered only if the heart rate remains below 60 beats/min despite effective ventilation and chest compressions. It is not the next step in this newborn.
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C. Apply continuous positive airway pressure alone
Continuous positive airway pressure is appropriate for a spontaneously breathing newborn with respiratory distress or persistent cyanosis. It does not provide adequate support for an apneic newborn.
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D. Continue positive-pressure ventilation and reassess the heart rate
This is correct. A newborn with apnea and a heart rate below 100 beats/min requires positive-pressure ventilation. If the heart rate is 60–99 beats/min after effective ventilation, ventilation should be continued with repeated assessment.
TAKEAWAY
In neonatal resuscitation, continue positive-pressure ventilation when the heart rate is 60–99 beats/min after effective ventilation; start chest compressions only when the heart rate remains below 60 beats/min despite effective ventilation.
Textbook of Neonatal Resuscitation, 8th edition, American Academy of Pediatrics and American Heart Association, 2021 · Section 6: Positive-Pressure Ventilation (checked 9 August 2026)
A term male infant is delivered in a hospital in Abu Dhabi. After drying, warming, and gentle stimulation, he remains apneic and has a heart rate of 80 beats/minute. What is the most appropriate next step?
- Start chest compressions immediately
- Continue observation and provide routine newborn care
- Begin positive-pressure ventilation with room air
- Give free-flow oxygen without assisted ventilation
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
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A. Start chest compressions immediately
Chest compressions are indicated only if the heart rate remains below 60 beats/minute after at least 30 seconds of effective positive-pressure ventilation, not as the initial intervention here.
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B. Continue observation and provide routine newborn care
Observation alone is inappropriate because persistent apnea and a heart rate of 80 beats/minute indicate inadequate transition and require prompt positive-pressure ventilation.
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C. Begin positive-pressure ventilation with room air
This is correct because apnea or a heart rate below 100 beats/minute after the initial steps is an indication for positive-pressure ventilation. For a term infant, ventilation can begin with room air.
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D. Give free-flow oxygen without assisted ventilation
Free-flow oxygen does not provide ventilation for an apneic infant. Assisted positive-pressure ventilation is required because the infant is not breathing and has a heart rate below 100 beats/minute.
TAKEAWAY
In a newborn who remains apneic or has a heart rate below 100 beats/minute after the initial steps, begin positive-pressure ventilation promptly; room air is appropriate initially for most term infants.
Neonatal Resuscitation Program, 8th edition, American Academy of Pediatrics and American Heart Association · Chapter 5: Positive-Pressure Ventilation (checked 9 August 2026)
Surgery
A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department in Abu Dhabi after a high-speed road-traffic collision. He is anxious, severely dyspnoeic, and hypotensive with a blood pressure of 78/46 mmHg. His trachea is deviated to the left, the right hemithorax is hyperresonant with absent breath sounds, and the neck veins are distended. What is the most appropriate immediate management?
- Emergency pericardiocentesis for presumed cardiac tamponade
- Immediate needle decompression followed by tube thoracostomy
- Portable chest radiography before pleural decompression
- Endotracheal intubation before treating the thoracic pressure
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: B
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A. Emergency pericardiocentesis for presumed cardiac tamponade
Tension pneumothorax can produce hypotension and distended neck veins, but unilateral hyperresonance, absent breath sounds, and tracheal deviation identify the thoracic cause rather than tamponade.
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B. Immediate needle decompression followed by tube thoracostomy
This is a tension pneumothorax causing obstructive shock. It is a clinical diagnosis requiring immediate decompression without waiting for chest radiography, followed by definitive tube thoracostomy.
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C. Portable chest radiography before pleural decompression
Imaging may confirm a stable pneumothorax, but delaying decompression in a patient with clinical tension pneumothorax and shock can be fatal.
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D. Endotracheal intubation before treating the thoracic pressure
Although airway support may eventually be required, positive-pressure ventilation before decompression can worsen intrathoracic pressure and cardiovascular compromise.
TAKEAWAY
Tension pneumothorax is a clinical emergency: immediately decompress the pleural space, then insert a chest tube; do not delay treatment for imaging.
Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS), 11th Edition, American College of Surgeons, 2025 · Thoracic Trauma: Tension Pneumothorax (checked 9 August 2026)
An 82-year-old woman in Abu Dhabi falls at home and develops severe left hip pain with inability to bear weight. The leg is shortened and externally rotated. Radiographs show a displaced intracapsular fracture of the femoral neck. She was independently mobile indoors with a cane before the fall and has no major cognitive impairment. After medical optimisation, what is the most appropriate definitive treatment?
- Total hip arthroplasty
- Prolonged skeletal traction without surgery
- Hemiarthroplasty of the hip
- Internal fixation with cannulated screws
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C
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A. Total hip arthroplasty
Total hip arthroplasty is considered for patients who were independently mobile outdoors, have no major comorbidity limiting the procedure, and are expected to remain independently mobile for more than 2 years. Those criteria are not present here.
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B. Prolonged skeletal traction without surgery
Nonoperative traction does not provide appropriate definitive treatment for a displaced intracapsular femoral-neck fracture and is associated with complications of prolonged immobilisation.
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C. Hemiarthroplasty of the hip
This is the preferred replacement procedure for an older patient with a displaced intracapsular femoral-neck fracture who has limited pre-fracture mobility and does not meet the usual criteria for total hip replacement.
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D. Internal fixation with cannulated screws
Internal fixation is generally used for undisplaced intracapsular fractures or selected younger patients. In an older patient with a displaced fracture, it has a higher risk of nonunion and avascular necrosis than arthroplasty.
TAKEAWAY
An older patient with a displaced intracapsular femoral-neck fracture should usually undergo arthroplasty. Hemiarthroplasty is appropriate when pre-fracture mobility is limited or the patient does not meet criteria for total hip replacement.
NICE guideline CG124: Hip fracture management · Recommendations 1.6.1–1.6.3, Arthroplasty — 1.6.1 (checked 9 August 2026)
Ready for more than ten
These ten are a sample of a full DOH revision session: five new questions a day free, weighted to the exam and tilted toward whatever subject is currently costing you marks, with everything you miss scheduled to come back before you forget it. The review deck is free forever.
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