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Free MOHAP practice questions

These ten questions are pulled straight from the PassCurve MOHAP bank and shown exactly as a candidate meets them in a real revision session, nothing held back and nothing simplified for the page. Answer one, then open the reveal underneath to see the correct option, why every option is right or wrong, and the specific guideline the answer rests on.

The UAE Ministry of Health and Prevention licensing exam is sat in English, so every question here is written in English too, the language you will actually read on exam day. Ten questions from one sitting will not replace a full revision plan, but they are a fast, honest way to see where your knowledge already holds and where it still has gaps. Read the MOHAP exam guide for the exam's format, eligibility and scoring, or start a free session in the app now to keep going past these ten.

Every explanation below is evidence based: each one names the specific guideline it rests on and the date that source was last read, so you can check it yourself rather than take our word for it. These questions are written and fact-checked with AI assistance; not individually signed off by a physician.

Internal Medicine

Question 1 of 10 Cardiology

A 48-year-old male manufacturing worker in Sharjah presents to a primary care clinic for a routine follow-up four weeks after sustaining an acute myocardial infarction. He was treated with primary percutaneous coronary intervention and placement of a drug-eluting stent. His current daily medications include aspirin 75 mg, ticagrelor 90 mg twice daily, bisoprolol 2.5 mg, and ramipril 5 mg. He feels well and has no chest pain. Blood pressure is 120/78 mmHg and heart rate is 64 beats/minute. A fasting lipid profile shows a low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) level of 3.2 mmol/L (124 mg/dL). Which of the following medications is the most appropriate next step to add to this patient's regimen?

  • Ezetimibe
  • Evolocumab
  • Fenofibrate
  • Rosuvastatin
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

  • A. Ezetimibe

    Ezetimibe is recommended as a second-line agent if the LDL-C target is not achieved after 4-6 weeks of maximally tolerated high-intensity statin therapy. It is not indicated as initial monotherapy in statin-naive post-MI patients.

  • B. Evolocumab

    Evolocumab (a PCSK9 inhibitor) is indicated for patients who fail to achieve LDL-C targets despite maximally tolerated statin and ezetimibe therapy. It is a third-line agent, not an initial therapy.

  • C. Fenofibrate

    Fenofibrate is primarily used for the management of severe hypertriglyceridemia to prevent pancreatitis. It has no proven mortality benefit as a primary lipid-lowering agent in secondary prevention of ASCVD compared to statins.

  • D. Rosuvastatin

    Rosuvastatin (a high-intensity statin) is the first-line lipid-lowering therapy recommended for secondary prevention in all patients with established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD), regardless of baseline LDL-C. The goal is to achieve an LDL-C reduction of ≥50% and a target of <1.4 mmol/L (55 mg/dL).

TAKEAWAY

High-intensity statin therapy (e.g., Rosuvastatin 20-40 mg or Atorvastatin 40-80 mg) should be initiated as early as possible in all patients post-myocardial infarction, aiming for an LDL-C target of <1.4 mmol/L (55 mg/dL) and a ≥50% reduction from baseline.

2023 ESC Guidelines for the management of acute coronary syndromes · Section 14.3: Lipid-lowering therapy (checked 15 August 2026)

Question 5 of 10 Infectious Diseases

A 34-year-old male farm worker in Ras Al Khaimah presents to the primary health care centre with a 3-week history of undulating fever, drenching night sweats, profound fatigue, and lower back pain. He reports frequently consuming unpasteurized camel milk from the farm where he works. On physical examination, his temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), and there is mild hepatosplenomegaly. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Brucellosis
  • Typhoid fever
  • Middle East respiratory syndrome
  • Tuberculosis
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: A

  • A. Brucellosis

    Brucellosis classically presents with an undulating fever, night sweats, fatigue, arthralgia or back pain, and hepatosplenomegaly. A history of consuming unpasteurized dairy, such as raw camel milk, is a very strong epidemiological risk factor.

  • B. Typhoid fever

    Typhoid fever presents with prolonged fever, abdominal pain, and sometimes a macular 'rose spots' rash. However, undulating fever combined with back pain after consuming raw camel milk is highly specific for brucellosis.

  • C. Middle East respiratory syndrome

    While Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) is strongly associated with direct camel contact, it primarily presents as an acute respiratory illness with fever, cough, and shortness of breath, not as a subacute undulating fever with hepatosplenomegaly.

  • D. Tuberculosis

    Tuberculosis causes fever, night sweats, and fatigue, but is typically associated with a chronic cough, hemoptysis, and weight loss. It is transmitted via respiratory droplets rather than the ingestion of unpasteurized milk.

TAKEAWAY

Brucellosis should be highly suspected in patients presenting with undulating fever, night sweats, and back pain, especially when accompanied by a history of consuming unpasteurized dairy products such as camel milk.

Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21st Edition · Chapter 162: Brucellosis (checked 15 August 2026)

Question 9 of 10 Respiratory

A 48-year-old male expatriate presents to a primary care clinic in Ras Al Khaimah with a 2-year history of progressive shortness of breath and a dry cough. He has worked in a ceramics manufacturing facility for the past 20 years. He does not smoke and reports no fever, night sweats, or weight loss. Vital signs are within normal limits. Lung auscultation reveals diminished breath sounds bilaterally without crackles or wheezes. A chest radiograph demonstrates diffuse, small nodular opacities predominantly in the upper lobes, along with enlarged hilar lymph nodes exhibiting peripheral "eggshell" calcification. Which of the following screening tests is most strongly indicated for this patient?

  • Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme level
  • Interferon-gamma release assay
  • Alpha-1 antitrypsin level
  • Antinuclear antibody titer
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: B

  • A. Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme level

    While sarcoidosis can occasionally cause eggshell calcifications and upper lobe opacities, the 20-year occupational exposure to ceramics strongly points to silicosis. Furthermore, ACE levels lack sufficient sensitivity and specificity to be recommended as a routine screening or diagnostic test.

  • B. Interferon-gamma release assay

    This patient has silicosis, characterized by occupational silica exposure (ceramics manufacturing), upper lobe nodules, and eggshell calcification of hilar nodes. Silica particles are toxic to alveolar macrophages, which massively increases the patient's risk of developing active tuberculosis. Clinical guidelines mandate screening for latent tuberculosis (via an interferon-gamma release assay or tuberculin skin test) in all patients newly diagnosed with silicosis.

  • C. Alpha-1 antitrypsin level

    Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency typically presents with panacinar emphysema predominantly affecting the lower lobes. It does not cause upper lobe nodular opacities or hilar eggshell calcifications.

  • D. Antinuclear antibody titer

    Although silicosis is associated with an increased risk of connective tissue diseases (such as systemic sclerosis or rheumatoid arthritis), routine screening with ANA in the absence of rheumatologic symptoms (e.g., joint pain, skin thickening) is not indicated.

TAKEAWAY

Patients diagnosed with silicosis have a substantially increased risk of tuberculosis due to silica-induced macrophage toxicity. Routine screening for latent tuberculosis with an IGRA or tuberculin skin test is a mandatory step in their health maintenance.

Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21st Edition · Chapter 293: Environmental Lung Diseases (checked 15 August 2026)

Obstetrics and Gynaecology

Question 2 of 10 Gynaecology

A 56-year-old woman presents to a primary healthcare center in Ras Al Khaimah with a one-week history of mild vaginal bleeding. She reached menopause four years ago. Her medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her body mass index is 35 kg/m². Pelvic examination reveals atrophic vaginal mucosa and a small amount of dark blood in the vaginal vault, with a normal-appearing cervix. A transvaginal ultrasound shows an endometrial thickness of 9 mm with no focal lesions. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

  • Repeat the transvaginal ultrasound in 6 months
  • Perform an outpatient endometrial biopsy
  • Prescribe a course of oral progestins
  • Refer for a total abdominal hysterectomy
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: B

  • A. Repeat the transvaginal ultrasound in 6 months

    Expectant management or delayed imaging is inappropriate for postmenopausal bleeding with a thickened endometrium (>4 mm), as this clinical presentation carries a significant risk of endometrial carcinoma requiring prompt diagnosis.

  • B. Perform an outpatient endometrial biopsy

    Postmenopausal bleeding with an endometrial thickness greater than 4 mm requires histological evaluation to rule out endometrial carcinoma, especially in a patient with significant metabolic risk factors like obesity and diabetes. Outpatient endometrial biopsy is the standard first-line diagnostic step.

  • C. Prescribe a course of oral progestins

    Progestin therapy is a viable treatment for confirmed endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, but it is contraindicated without first obtaining a histological diagnosis to rule out malignancy.

  • D. Refer for a total abdominal hysterectomy

    Hysterectomy is a definitive treatment for endometrial cancer or complex atypical hyperplasia, but it is entirely inappropriate and premature before establishing a definitive histological diagnosis.

TAKEAWAY

In postmenopausal women presenting with vaginal bleeding and an endometrial thickness >4 mm on transvaginal ultrasound, prompt endometrial biopsy is required to rule out endometrial carcinoma.

ACOG Committee Opinion No. 734: The Role of Transvaginal Ultrasonography in Evaluating the Endometrium of Women With Postmenopausal Bleeding · Clinical Guidelines / Management of Postmenopausal Bleeding (checked 15 August 2026)

Question 6 of 10 Gynaecology

A 30-year-old female expatriate working in a Ras Al Khaimah free zone presents to a primary care clinic with a 3-day history of intense vaginal itching and a thick, white, odorless vaginal discharge. She reports no pelvic pain, dysuria, or fever. Her medical history is unremarkable, though she recently completed a course of oral amoxicillin for a dental infection. On pelvic examination, the vulva is visibly erythematous, and a distinct "cottage cheese-like" adherent discharge is noted in the vaginal vault. There is no cervical motion tenderness. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Bacterial vaginosis
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Vulvovaginal candidiasis
  • Trichomoniasis
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

  • A. Bacterial vaginosis

    Bacterial vaginosis typically presents with a thin, homogenous, grayish-white discharge accompanied by a distinct "fishy" odor, unlike the thick, odorless discharge seen in this patient.

  • B. Pelvic inflammatory disease

    Pelvic inflammatory disease presents with lower abdominal pain, cervical motion tenderness, and systemic signs like fever. This patient lacks these findings.

  • C. Vulvovaginal candidiasis

    The clinical presentation of intense pruritus, erythema, and a thick, white, odorless "cottage cheese-like" discharge, especially following recent antibiotic use, is classic for vulvovaginal candidiasis.

  • D. Trichomoniasis

    Trichomoniasis is characterized by a copious, yellow-green, frothy, and malodorous vaginal discharge, often associated with punctate cervical hemorrhages (strawberry cervix), which are absent here.

TAKEAWAY

Vulvovaginal candidiasis classically presents with intense vulvar pruritus, erythema, and a thick, white, odorless "cottage cheese" discharge, often triggered by recent broad-spectrum antibiotic use.

ACOG Practice Bulletin No. 215 · Vaginitis in Nonpregnant Patients (checked 15 August 2026)

Question 10 of 10 Obstetrics

A 26-year-old pregnant woman, G2P1, presents to a primary health care clinic in Ajman for a routine antenatal visit at 28 weeks of gestation. Her blood group is A negative, and her husband's blood group is A positive. Her first child is A positive, and she received anti-D immune globulin after that delivery. Today, her indirect Coombs test (alloantibody screen) is negative. The pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

  • Repeat the indirect Coombs test at 36 weeks
  • Administer prophylactic anti-D immune globulin
  • Perform a fetal middle cerebral artery Doppler
  • Administer intramuscular betamethasone therapy
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: B

  • A. Repeat the indirect Coombs test at 36 weeks

    The standard of care is to administer prophylactic anti-D at 28 weeks. Delaying this or simply repeating the test without prophylaxis increases the risk of sensitization in the third trimester.

  • B. Administer prophylactic anti-D immune globulin

    Routine prophylaxis with anti-D immune globulin is indicated at 28 weeks of gestation for all unsensitized (alloantibody negative) Rh-negative pregnant women to prevent Rh D alloimmunization.

  • C. Perform a fetal middle cerebral artery Doppler

    Fetal middle cerebral artery (MCA) Doppler is used to assess for fetal anemia in alloimmunized pregnancies (positive antibody screen). This patient is not alloimmunized.

  • D. Administer intramuscular betamethasone therapy

    Corticosteroids such as betamethasone are indicated when preterm delivery is anticipated to accelerate fetal lung maturity, not for routine Rh incompatibility management.

TAKEAWAY

Unsensitized Rh-negative pregnant women should receive prophylactic anti-D immune globulin routinely at 28 weeks of gestation.

ACOG Practice Bulletin No. 181 · Prevention of Rh D Alloimmunization (checked 15 August 2026)

Pediatrics

Question 3 of 10 Pediatric Infectious Diseases

A 10-month-old boy is brought to a primary health care center in Ajman by his parents due to a new-onset skin rash. The mother reports that he had a high fever of up to 39.5°C for the past three days, which was managed with paracetamol. This morning, the fever completely resolved, but a pink, non-pruritic maculopapular rash appeared on his trunk and spread to his neck. On examination, the infant is active, playful, and afebrile. There is no conjunctivitis, cough, or runny nose. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Roseola infantum
  • Rubella
  • Erythema infectiosum
  • Measles
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: A

  • A. Roseola infantum

    Roseola infantum (caused by HHV-6) classically presents with 3-5 days of high fever that resolves abruptly, followed immediately by the appearance of a blanching maculopapular rash starting on the trunk. The child typically appears well and active once the rash appears.

  • B. Rubella

    Rubella presents with a low-grade fever, tender lymphadenopathy (especially suboccipital and postauricular), and a rash that begins on the face and spreads rapidly downward. It lacks the classic pattern of an abrupt fever break followed by a truncal rash.

  • C. Erythema infectiosum

    Erythema infectiosum (Fifth disease), caused by Parvovirus B19, typically affects older (school-aged) children and presents with a classic 'slapped cheek' facial rash followed by a reticular rash on the extremities, without a preceding high fever of this nature.

  • D. Measles

    Measles presents with a prodrome of cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis (the 3 Cs). The rash typically starts on the face/hairline and spreads downward, and the fever characteristically persists during the rash phase.

TAKEAWAY

Roseola infantum (exanthem subitum) is uniquely characterized by a high fever for 3-5 days followed by abrupt defervescence and the simultaneous appearance of a maculopapular rash starting on the trunk.

Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 21st Edition · Chapter 284: Human Herpesviruses 6 and 7 (Roseola Infantum) (checked 15 August 2026)

Question 7 of 10 Neonatology

A 4-day-old male neonate is brought to a primary health care center in Ras Al Khaimah by his parents due to a yellowish discoloration of the skin, which they first noticed on his third day of life. He was born at term (39 weeks of gestation) via an uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery. The neonate is exclusively breastfed, latching well every 2 to 3 hours, producing 4 to 5 wet diapers a day, and passing yellow transitional stools. His vital signs are within normal limits, and he appears active and alert. Physical examination reveals mild scleral icterus and jaundice extending to the chest. There is no hepatosplenomegaly. His total serum bilirubin level is 10 mg/dL (171 micromol/L). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

  • Stop breastfeeding temporarily and substitute with formula
  • Supplement the current feedings with oral dextrose water
  • Admit the neonate to the hospital for phototherapy
  • Reassure the parents and continue exclusive breastfeeding
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

  • A. Stop breastfeeding temporarily and substitute with formula

    Incorrect. Temporary cessation of breastfeeding is not recommended for physiological jaundice or early breastfeeding jaundice. Frequent, effective breastfeeding should be encouraged instead.

  • B. Supplement the current feedings with oral dextrose water

    Incorrect. Supplementing with water or dextrose water is contraindicated. It does not lower serum bilirubin levels and can dangerously decrease breast milk intake, potentially worsening jaundice and risking hyponatremia.

  • C. Admit the neonate to the hospital for phototherapy

    Incorrect. Phototherapy is indicated only when total serum bilirubin exceeds the age- and risk-specific nomogram thresholds. A level of 10 mg/dL at 96 hours in a healthy term infant does not require phototherapy.

  • D. Reassure the parents and continue exclusive breastfeeding

    Correct. This neonate presents with classic physiological jaundice, characterized by onset after 24 hours of life, peaking around days 3-5, and lacking signs of hemolysis or underlying illness. The bilirubin level (10 mg/dL at 96 hours) is well below the threshold for phototherapy. Reassurance and continued frequent breastfeeding to promote enteral clearance of bilirubin is the standard of care.

TAKEAWAY

Physiological jaundice typically appears after 24 hours of life in healthy neonates; if bilirubin levels are below the phototherapy threshold and the infant is feeding well, reassurance and continued frequent breastfeeding are sufficient.

AAP Clinical Practice Guideline Revision: Management of Hyperbilirubinemia in the Newborn Infant 35 or More Weeks of Gestation (2022) · Prevention and Management of Hyperbilirubinemia (checked 15 August 2026)

Surgery

Question 4 of 10 Emergency and Trauma

A 32-year-old male scaffolding worker in Ras Al Khaimah is brought to the emergency department in mid-July. Co-workers report he became acutely confused and collapsed at the construction site. On examination, he is agitated and disoriented. Vital signs reveal a heart rate of 132/min, blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg, respiratory rate of 24/min, and a rectal temperature of 40.8°C (105.4°F). His skin is hot and moist. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

  • Administer intravenous dantrolene to treat hyperthermia
  • Transfer the patient for an urgent CT scan of the head
  • Administer intravenous paracetamol to reduce fever
  • Initiate rapid cooling with cold water immersion
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

  • A. Administer intravenous dantrolene to treat hyperthermia

    Incorrect. Dantrolene is indicated for malignant hyperthermia (typically triggered by volatile anesthetics) and neuroleptic malignant syndrome, but it has no proven efficacy in environmental heat stroke.

  • B. Transfer the patient for an urgent CT scan of the head

    Incorrect. Although the patient has altered mental status, immediate cooling is the life-saving priority. Diagnostic imaging, such as a CT scan, should never delay rapid cooling.

  • C. Administer intravenous paracetamol to reduce fever

    Incorrect. Antipyretics (e.g., paracetamol) are ineffective in heat stroke because the underlying mechanism is a failure of heat dissipation, not a change in the hypothalamic set-point as seen in fever.

  • D. Initiate rapid cooling with cold water immersion

    Correct. Exertional heat stroke requires immediate rapid cooling. Cold water immersion is the gold standard to rapidly decrease core body temperature and prevent irreversible organ damage.

TAKEAWAY

Exertional heat stroke is a life-threatening emergency characterized by a core temperature >40°C and central nervous system dysfunction. The absolute priority is immediate rapid cooling, ideally via cold water immersion, before diagnostic testing.

Rosen's Emergency Medicine: Concepts and Clinical Practice, 10th Edition · Chapter 132: Heat Illness (checked 15 August 2026)

Question 8 of 10 Orthopaedics

A 32-year-old male warehouse worker presents to an occupational health clinic in a Sharjah free zone with severe right foot pain. Earlier today, he missed a step on a ladder and landed heavily on his plantar-flexed right foot. He is currently unable to bear weight. Physical examination reveals significant swelling over the dorsum of the midfoot and prominent ecchymosis on the plantar aspect of the foot. Palpation of the tarsometatarsal joints elicits severe tenderness. Initial non-weight-bearing anteroposterior, lateral, and oblique radiographs of the right foot show no obvious fractures or dislocations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

  • Computed tomography (CT) scan of the calcaneus
  • Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the ankle
  • Weight-bearing radiographs of the foot
  • Ultrasound of the anterior talofibular ligament
Show the answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

  • A. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the calcaneus

    A CT scan of the calcaneus is indicated for suspected calcaneal fractures, which typically present with severe heel pain and a widened, shortened heel after a direct fall from a height onto the heels. This patient has midfoot tenderness, not heel pain.

  • B. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the ankle

    MRI of the ankle evaluates soft tissue injuries of the ankle joint (e.g., Achilles tendon, ankle ligaments). The patient's clinical signs localize to the midfoot, not the ankle, making this imaging inappropriate.

  • C. Weight-bearing radiographs of the foot

    Plantar ecchymosis and midfoot pain after an axial load on a plantar-flexed foot are highly suggestive of a Lisfranc (tarsometatarsal) injury. Initial non-weight-bearing radiographs often miss subtle instability. Weight-bearing radiographs are the recommended next step to demonstrate widening of the interval between the first and second metatarsals.

  • D. Ultrasound of the anterior talofibular ligament

    Ultrasound of the anterior talofibular ligament is useful for diagnosing lateral ankle sprains. The patient's pain is localized to the tarsometatarsal joints and is accompanied by plantar ecchymosis, indicating a midfoot injury rather than a lateral ankle sprain.

TAKEAWAY

Plantar ecchymosis following an axial load to a plantar-flexed foot is highly indicative of a Lisfranc injury. If initial non-weight-bearing radiographs are normal, weight-bearing radiographs are required to reveal occult tarsometatarsal instability.

Apley & Solomon's System of Orthopaedics and Trauma, 10th Edition · Chapter 32: The Ankle and Foot, Injuries of the Tarsometatarsal (Lisfranc) Joint (checked 15 August 2026)

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